Question reg sports odds (tennis)

Danepak

This makes no sense to me.

In the French Open (tennis) Holger Rune is 15.00 to win the tournament and Casper Ruud is 19.00.
But they’re meeting each other later today in the 1/4 final and Ruud is slight favourite at 1.72 vs Rune at 2.10.

If Rune according to the bookies is rated as having a higher chance of winning the tournament, shouldn’t he then also be the favourite?
Or am I missing something?

ForeverAddickted

Is it that reason, because if Ruud beats Rune... He's still not favourite to win the Tournament because of who is in the other half of the draw?

There is less chance of Rune winning, but if he does win this match... He'll do better if he reaches the Final.

Its like if the FA Cup Semi-Finals are; Charlton vs Welling | Millwall vs Dartford (are the team we face in the Final)

We'll be odds on favourites to beat Welling, but they'll stand a much greater chance of even scoring a goal against Millwall than us

Danepak

ForeverAddickted said:

Is it that reason, because if Ruud beats Rune... He's still not favourite to win the Tournament because of who is in the other half of the draw?

There is less chance of Rune winning, but if he does win this match... He'll do better if he reaches the Final.

Its like if the FA Cup Semi-Finals are; Charlton vs Welling | Millwall vs Dartford (are the team we face in the Final)

We'll be odds on favourites to beat Welling, but they'll stand a much greater chance of even scoring a goal against Millwall than us

But they’ll be playing the same person in the semifinal. It’s not like Ruud will be playing the winner of Alcarez/Djokovic and Rune will be playing the winner of Zverev/Etcheverry.
The winner of this game faces Zverev/Etcheverry.

Addick Addict

Is it something to do with their head to head records? I don't know but does Ruud have a better record against Rune and specifically on clay? If that is the case but Rune were to get through he might have a marginally better record than Rune against his prospective opponents? 

bobmunro

Danepak said:

This makes no sense to me.

In the French Open (tennis) Holger Rune is 15.00 to win the tournament and Casper Ruud is 19.00.
But they’re meeting each other later today in the 1/4 final and Ruud is slight favourite at 1.72 vs Rune at 2.10.

If Rune according to the bookies is rated as having a higher chance of winning the tournament, shouldn’t he then also be the favourite?
Or am I missing something?

Styles make fights as they say in boxing. 

I don't know, but it could be that the head to head on clay between the two players favours Ruud, but Rune has the better game to challenge Zverev or Etcheverry. Odds compiling when comparing individual matches versus outright can be complex. 

They are also two separate books from a liability perspective - the outright market may have been affected by weight of money on Rune rather than Ruud whereas the individual quarter-final match is pretty much virgin in terms of liability.

Edit: Just seen AA beat me to it - what would he know?? ;-)

Danepak

Thanks, I appreciate the explanation. Just don’t think I’ve ever seen a similar situation before odds wise.